Where Jews were able to raise considerable capital from diaspora Jews. The Arabs in the region were poor and didn't, and don't, have wealthy Muslim patrons.

Why did the Greeks allow homosexuality but most of the Judea-Christian-Islamic religions don't? Putting that aside, is it possible that homosexuality is banned for reasons having nothing to do with the act of same-gender sex?

I believe homosexuality is banned in religions for the same reason adultery or prostitution is banned. It disrupts communities. If a man has children with a woman but spends all his time and money with another man that means there are two sets of children who are fatherless and wives who are unhappy.

Most Muslims live in unforgiving environments where there are often food shortages and other problems. It's important that communities run smoothly.

There have been very few (if any?) homosexual pogroms, so to speak. No cultures that send police looking for homosexuals. I believe it is understood by every adult that homosexuals exist and they will hook up, so to speak. As long as they don't do it publicly everyone ignores it.

We all know that the more a politician rails against homosexuality the greater the likelihood that they are homosexual themselves. But they understand it isn't homosexuality that worries their constituents, it's a flaunting of the rules.

From a Western point of view, it seems primitive for Muslims to hate homosexuals. But it's easy for them to feel that since they are very wealthy. They're not stuck in a hard-scrabble community, with no big city where they can make their fortune, so to speak.

Before one judges the views of a community (their religion) they must first walk in their shoes and understand the problems they face.

In short, if you look at the history of it, open homosexuality is a luxury of the rich.